I have two OpenWRT devices on my network (Router and a Raspberry Pi)
Both of them can communicate via VLANs, The Pi has a USB 4G modem connected to eth1, which provides a DHCP WAN IP address.
I would like to passthrough the modem/eth1 via 802.1q VLANs, so that my router can get it's WAN IP via my managed switch from the USB Modem, like it was directly connected to the router via USB.
I have tried various configurations using the bridge type, but have not found success so far.
Does anyone have advice for this situation?
Cheers!
This should be possible... just a matter of understanding the topology you're aiming for. Can you draw a quick diagram, including any additional equipment between the two OpenWrt devices, and if you have multiple internet connections, please make that clear, too. In your diagram, be sure to label the devices with the brand/model and also port numbers with the OpenWrt main router.
Let's see the contents of the network config files for each of the devices:
Please connect to your OpenWrt device using ssh and copy the output of the following commands and post it here using the "Preformatted text </> " button:
Remember to redact passwords, MAC addresses and any public IP addresses you may have:
Many many thanks for your input.
Yes that's correct, the AR750S is set up for that already as you stated.
I did not remove the above code snipped as I would not be able to manage the Pi via the network if I removed VLAN 1 device, and the eth0.6 device would not exist I removed the VLAN 6 device?
I am happy to be wrong!
Everything else is set up as you provided awaiting feedback.
These bits can be safely removed... the eth0 (vlan1) device is the native eth0, and eth0.6 (vlan 6) is created by the dotted notation used in the bridge.
Have reverted and re-applied your suggestion, now appears to be working.
I had no ethernet link on the Pi, so was a bit of an odd one.
Only observation is that it does not seem to work if the 4G modem is offering a public IP address, but private (192.168.1.0/24) addresses seem to work fine. I am assuming this is a quirk of the modem and not the set up, unless you think otherwise?
Eitherway, thank you so much for your help this evening, I really really appreciate it!
Yes, I agree - this is probably the modem. It may have 'learned' the previous MAC address and it may only issue a public IP to that MAC until the association is cleared. heck the modem setup.