Multiple aspects.
/64
and 245
... I assume its a "technical limitation". AFAIK it's still unclear for most DHCPv6 servers how to really allocate addresses. Like, "do we just increment with each lease?", "do we choose RANDOM from pool?", "how to keep track of addresses if we use a really huge pool?" that's why at least some DHCPv6 server implementation just said: "f... it, let's just use a small range like to first 256 or 1024/4092 addresses and either stupidly increment or pseudo random allocation...." (If you are heavily board have fun by yourself and dig in the mailinglist of the ISC, Internet Systems Consortium, mailing list reading how they struggled to implement it sanely with kea
the successors for dhcpd
... and kea
is not a "small" project but like dhcpd
or bind9
THE reference implementation
I will not complain because I find their (ISC) software more then useful, and I like to continue using them.)
And ISP has more or less two ways allocation IPv6 to a customer, but you need in any way a /64
(for simplicity we ignore more esoteric options for now, ok...) for the connection ISP to Customer router device, or CPE as it is called: Customer Premises Equipment. And one prefix/allocation for the customer network itself.
Either the ISP is stupid, then its a /64
or /60
, or the ISP has read the "recommendations" by the IPv6 Working-group and RIPE or ARIN, and they allocate at least(!) a /56
to the customer. (It is expected that a customer has nowadays more then "a single LAN". Like a typical household already has: "trusted LAN", IoT, Guest, Work-from-Home, etc So a single /64
is just dump and /60
still stupid. A /56
would be save and future ready. In the early days it was considered to just throw a /48
at each Internet-User and never have any debates about "Shit! We are sparse on network numbers" again. But a /56
is at least a sane number. 256 local subnets should serve for a while even with more advanced local setups...)
Back to topic: How to allocate the customer network?
This customer allocation could be now:
- In the same network as the allocation for the WAN link; or
- from a dedicated network.
If I got your example right...
$ sipcalc 2001:db8:2003:abc0::/59 -S /60
-[ipv6 : 2001:db8:2003:abc0::/59] - 0
[Split network]
Network - 2001:0db8:2003:abc0:0000:0000:0000:0000 -
2001:0db8:2003:abcf:ffff:ffff:ffff:ffff
Network - 2001:0db8:2003:abd0:0000:0000:0000:0000 -
2001:0db8:2003:abdf:ffff:ffff:ffff:ffff
Maybe they just burn their address space and using only a single /64
for the uplink out of that first /60
and use the second /60
as PD. Don't know...
I'm with Deutsche Telekom, and it looks like they serve customers per region from a /40
, where the uplinks coming from the very last /48
and all /56
PD are within the /40
. So they serve around 65K customer per /40
.
wan: 2003:e4:bfff:xxxx:1234:5678:9abc:def0/64
lan: 2003:e4:bfab:cd00::/56
You mainly do these of routing efficiency. So within there core network / back bone, there are only a handful routes to my city.
(You will also see that the default OpenWrt installation enables the user to "daisy chain" routers. Like if your ISP gives a /56
, your LAN will show you it has a /60
, and you can now plugin an other OpenWrt router (with its WAN port) into a LAN-port of the first one, and the 2nd router gets its "own" /64
out of that /60
.)
I hope this makes sense. I got a cold and my brain feels dizzy. If something is unclear, feel free to ask again, then I'll try again...