Hello, i’m looking for some help (could be also links to something to study to understand how this should work..)
Context: my ISP is full ipv6 based. It delegates me a /60, but as of today i’ve always just used ipv6 for external connection, keeping full ipv4 in home.
All is working (with all my 6 vlans)
Now i need a specific vlan to have ipv6. So i tried delegating a /64 on the specific interface, and strangely it worked, the problem is that i can’t have ipv6 traffic from the vlan, where i can freely have ipv6 traffic from the router itself. Basically, it seems traffic is going to the router, but not exiting. It resolves ip, but cant reach them (the router reaches them)
root@Services:~# ping -6 google.com
PING google.com (2a00:1450:4002:402::200e) 56 data bytes
From 2a01:e11:1407:ba52:be24:11ff:fe22:a977 icmp_seq=1 Destination unreachable: Address unreachable
From 2a01:e11:1407:ba52:be24:11ff:fe22:a977 icmp_seq=2 Destination unreachable: Address unreachable
Useless to say that ipv4 traffic is working perfectly
root@Services:~# ping -4 google.com
PING google.com (142.250.181.174) 56(84) bytes of data.
64 bytes from mct01s20-in-f14.1e100.net (142.250.181.174): icmp_seq=1 ttl=120 time=2.76 ms
64 bytes from mct01s20-in-f14.1e100.net (142.250.181.174): icmp_seq=2 ttl=120 time=3.09 ms
So, basically, is there a magic option to enable to allow outblund ipv6 traffic differently from ipv4?
As far as i have understood, the routing table is based on link local (and the local device has a default route via the link local of the router, seems correct), but the ip address going to internet is the one delegated (so no masquerading and no routing). But nothing of these is happening ![]()
I have the bad sensation i’m missing something, but probably is something also conceptual..
Thanks